25:44-46 (NIV) The Lord said to Moses, "Your male and
female slaves are to come from the nations around you; from them
you may buy slaves.:"
The only rule, the all-just
and all-loving God said, is that you can't kill your
21:20-21 (NIV): "If a man beats his male or female
slave with a rod and the slave dies as a direct result, he must
be punished, but he is not to be punished if the slave gets up
after a day or two, since the slave is his property"
In other words, the Lord told
Moses to tell his people that they can beat their slaves half to
death, but if they go too far, and the slave dies, then they'll
have to pay for it. But, if the beaten slave is able to stagger
to his feet after a couple of days, then the owner is not to be
Now, did a god really say
this to Moses, or did Moses just imagine that a god said this to
him? Or did he pretend that it happened to justify harsh
treatment of slaves?
The "Jesus" described in the Bible allegedly knew what was in
scripture, and the only thing he expressed disapproval of were
certain laws relating to teaching on the sabbath, and laws
relating to food. If he really existed, and was the loving
son of God that the gospels describe, why didn't he mention even
once that men should not beat their slaves half to death? If the
all-caring and all-just Jesus really existed, why were trivial
sabbath and food laws more important to him, evidently, than the
horrific slavery practices that Jewish law allowed?